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One of the worst calls ever? Jets "fumble" at the goal line vs Pats
wow. and I've always wondered the intent was regarding fumbling into the end zone resulting in a touch back. does anyone know why that rule exists? what's the purpose behind it?
http://blog.masslive.com/patriots/20...inced_nfl.html
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I still believe if no one recovers the ball, there is no way the other team should get the ball on the 20 if you fumble through the end zone. That is a stupid rule.
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The purpose is so teams just don't fumble the ball forward into the end zone on purpose. Like say from the 5 to get the ball at the one or something. Right now that rule is completely crazy. Fumble out of bounds, the other team whom never controlled it gets the ball 20 yards forward. Like to play golf with these rule makers.
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It's probably not the best rule but it is a rule and looked like it was applied appropriately here. The same rule screwed us in 2010 against Arkansas. I've always disliked it. I think it needs to be changed to place the ball on the 1 yard line and play the next down. Or push it back to the 2 or 3 (unless the team had advanced it further on a previous play) then replay the down.
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Originally Posted by
QuadrupleOption
It's probably not the best rule but it is a rule and looked like it was applied appropriately here.
Not sure how you can think that.
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Originally Posted by
QuadrupleOption
It's probably not the best rule but it is a rule and looked like it was applied appropriately here. The same rule screwed us in 2010 against Arkansas. I've always disliked it. I think it needs to be changed to place the ball on the 1 yard line and play the next down. Or push it back to the 2 or 3 (unless the team had advanced it further on a previous play) then replay the down.
And Maine.
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If the other team never possessed it, and it is not 4th down then the ball should stay with the offensive team at the last point it was possessed.
So if you fumble on the 16 on 2nd down, kick the ball around and it rolls out the back of the endzone, then you get the ball on the 16 again. No harm no foul. Of course it would be the 3rd down then.
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Originally Posted by
MadDawg
Not sure how you can think that.
Just that he didn't have control of the ball when he went down in the end zone. It sucks, but it is what it is.
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Originally Posted by
Lord McBuckethead
If the other team never possessed it, and it is not 4th down then the ball should stay with the offensive team at the last point it was possessed.
So if you fumble on the 16 on 2nd down, kick the ball around and it rolls out the back of the endzone, then you get the ball on the 16 again. No harm no foul. Of course it would be the 3rd down then.
Yep. This would work pretty well I think. It would suck for a team that hit a huge play and then fumbled out of the end zone but that's on the ball carrier.
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